I actually find it fascinating. In my English line I have none of this. In my Scottish family, some of it. (It was most definitely "Anglicised" after they emigrated to Australia, although I think one daughter sort of "fought back" as she adopted her maiden name as an extra forename.)
I know this is diverting away from the last-name prefix issue, but I just have to share the one page from that family bible I was trying to read:
There is a certification to all whom it may concern that the one son (occupation) of (place) married the lawful daughter of (name) deceased (occupation) of (place).
There is listed thereafter the children of that couple:
(name) their daughter born (place) (date).
(name) their daughter born (place) (date).
(name) their daughter born (place) (6th April 1762) and departed this life at the pleasure of the Almighty God by the smallpox ye 25th January 1765.
(name) their son born (place) (date).
(name) their daughter born (place) (20th October 1765) and departed this life at the pleasure of the Almighty God ye 19th December 1765 (cannot read the cause .. I'm still working on that)
(name) their son born (place) (date)
(name) their daughter departed this life at the pleasure of the Almighty God at (place) (date) by a (word) fever and sore throat
(name) their son born (place) (date)
(name last-name) and (name maiden surname) his spouse removed from (place) their family to (place) ye 17th February 17??
A change in handwriting now:
(first name) (maiden surname) my spouse departed this life at the pleasure of God (date 1793) by throwing up of blood being suddenly (word).
(first name) (maiden surname) my mother in law dayed at (place) ye (date 1794) aged 90 years.
(name last-name) my son departed this life at Kingstown, Jamaica, the (date 1797) by the Yellow Fever.
.
I found it rather sad that his very first entry in the family Bible (no idea just WHEN it passed to him) was to note his wife's death; then her mother's death, then that of his eldest son.