Today, I was reading an article and it struck me that the author had used "evidently" in an unfamiliar way. It made me wonder if that is a standard usage in serious genealogical writing that is code for something about the quality of the information (in a similar way to how "about" and "say" are used as different qualifiers when estimating a birth year).
The article I was reading stated that the Benjamin James profiled had married first by 1720, and in describing his second marriage, it said, "he evidently married second, after 1721 and before 1728, Joan (?Clarke)."
One of the pieces of evidence supporting this statement is the following:
* on 4 August 1740, "In Council appeared Joan James and desired that ye council would allow her time to get Bondsmen for Administration for her Husband Benjamin James Estate."
This record clearly states that Benjamin and Joan James were husband and wife. What reason could there be then to state that they "evidently married"?