Slaves in England

+8 votes
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The 1086 Domesday records show sites in England with slaves.  But for the most part, one does not encounter slaves in England.  Was there a specific date and place where slavery of the sort named in the Domesday book was abolished in England?
in Genealogy Help by Jack Day G2G6 Pilot (464k points)
edited by Jack Day

The Wikipedia article on slavery in Britain begins with this:

Slavery in Britain existed before the Roman occupation and until the 11th century, when the Norman conquest of Englandresulted in the gradual merger of the pre-conquest institution of slavery into serfdom, and all slaves were no longer recognised separately in English law or custom. By the middle of the 12th century, the institution of slavery as it had existed prior to the Norman conquest had fully disappeared, but other forms of unfree servitude continued for some centuries.

British merchants were a significant force behind the Atlantic slave trade between the seventeenth and nineteenth centuries,[1] but no legislation was ever passed in England that legalised slavery. In the Somerset case of 1772, Lord Mansfield ruled that, as slavery was not recognised by English law, James Somerset, a slave who had been brought to England and then escaped, could not be forcibly sent to Jamaica for sale, and he was set free. In Scotland, colliery (coal mine) slaves were still in use until 1799 where an act was passed which established their freedom and made this slavery and bondage illegal.[2][3]

An influential abolitionist movement grew in Britain during the 18th and 19th century, until the Slave Trade Act 1807 abolished the slave trade in the British Empire, but it was not until the Slavery Abolition Act 1833 that the institution of slavery was to be prohibited in directly administered, overseas, British territories.[4]

Despite being illegal, modern slavery still exists in Britain, as elsewhere, often following human trafficking from poorer countries, but also frequently targeting UK nationals.[5]

2 Answers

+6 votes
 
Best answer

Hello,

I do not know the answer to this, but here are some resources you may find useful. Just to be clear, do you mean when slavery was abolished in 1833? As the Normans came in and rebuilt England according to their Norman customs, I (somewhat educated archaeologist guess) would assume that there may have not been a set date but it could have changed during the times when William the Conqueror came in. If you read the article below, I think the answer may be 1080 - ish.  This all eventually changed when the Atlantic Slave Trade began.

1. National UK Archives - https://www.nationalarchives.gov.uk/domesday/world-of-domesday/order.htm

2. "In 1080, William the Conqueror banned the sale of slaves to non-Christians. In 1102, the ecclesiastical Council of London banned the slave trade within England, decreeing “Let no one dare hereafter to engage in the infamous business … of selling men like animals." Source: https://humanprogress.org/centers-of-progress-pt-23-london-emancipation/
 

3. You may also find this source interesting - https://www.brepolsonline.net/doi/abs/10.1484/J.Peri.3.139

by Hilary Mackay G2G2 (2.2k points)
selected by Living Mead

The English had a peculiar custom: English wife-selling - WikiTree G2G

+9 votes

Depends on your definition of slavery.

At the time of Magna Carta most of the population were not free. Very few clauses of the charter applied to them. https://www.bl.uk/magna-carta/articles/magna-carta-people-and-society#:~:text=Magna%20Carta%20limited%20the%20fines,bridge%2Dbuilding%20or%20riverbank%20repairs. 

Villeins and serfs  were bound to their lord of the manor and could not leave of their own volition. They had to work on the lord's demesne and pay  the lord in kind or money at various times of the year and at marriage, deaths etc, according to the custom of the manor. In return they held land which they farmed for their subsistence. Depoulation  after the Black Death led to gradual changes and a conversion of land held in villeinage to copyhold tenure. (though some manors still required work at harvest and other busy times of year from copyhold tenants)

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Villein

Was this a  type of slavery or something different? This article discusses it in some depth https://legalhistorymiscellany.com/2019/08/15/how-to-tell-a-serf-from-a-slave-in-medieval-england/

(Just adding link  for my own future reference to charter  203 (p172) 1170  sale of Aluric son of Stannard the fuller & his progeny to prior St Edmunds https://babel.hathitrust.org/cgi/pt?id=mdp.39015040789920 )

As to whether slavery was legal or rather said to be illegal in 1569 ( The case of Cartwright cited in the Somerset case . That's a rabbit hole

by Helen Ford G2G6 Pilot (475k points)
edited by Helen Ford

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